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On Wed, Mar 07, 2007 at 11:05:12AM -0600, David Smith wrote: (please trim!) > [...] > Hmm, I'm missing something. Why do we need $?var *and* $!var? It seems > like $?var would suffice. The reason why it doesn't becomes clear with an example, and with the realization that $var would still trigger a *translate-time* error if it did not exist in context. if ($?var) { use($!var) } // works even if $var would fail to translate - FChE
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